An increase in the median income of the middle class does not cause average levels of education for the middle class to go up. If they did, then countries with the highest median income of the middle class would also have the highest levels of education for this class. In fact, when the median income of the middle class is made suitably comparable for different countries (accounting for inflation, currency fluctuations and purchasing power parity), there is no such co-relation.Which of the following can be correctly inferred from the statements above?
Correct answer: A. Countries with the highest median income of the middle class do not have the highest levels of education for the middle class
- A. Countries with the highest median income of the middle class do not have the highest levels of education for the middle class
- B. It is difficult to reliably compare the education and income levels of one country with another
- C. A reduction in the median income of the middle class of the country will not necessarily lower the average level of education for the said class
- D. Countries with low levels of education for the middle class have comparatively higher levels of median income for the middle class
Explanation
This option is correct. The passage implies that there is no correlation between the median income and the average levels of education when adjusted for different factors. Therefore, having a high median income does not guarantee high education levels.
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